Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 03:28

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why are men ridiculously delusional in the women they want/approach? I'm not a troll. This is a real question. Why does a fat, pot bellied, unkempt, balding, stupid (ergo poor) man, tell a woman above his league that she isn't hot enough for him?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.